Practice Exam: Criminal Law & Jurisprudence - Anti-Money Laundering & Anti-Graft (Set 51)
A 30-question practice exam covering RA 9160 (AMLA), RA 3019 (Anti-Graft), and related anti-corruption laws.
1. Under the Anti-Money Laundering Act (RA 9160), which of the following is NOT considered a "covered person"?
A.Banks and offshore banking units
B.Insurance companies and securities dealers
C.Lawyers and accountants acting as independent legal professionals
D.Jewelry dealers in precious metals, who, as a business, trade in precious metals
2. What is the threshold amount for a single "covered transaction" that must be reported to the AMLC?
A.Exceeding PHP 250,000
B.Exceeding PHP 500,000
C.Exceeding PHP 1,000,000
D.Exceeding PHP 5,000,000
3. A bank teller notices a client depositing PHP 400,000 in cash every Monday for a month, which is unusual for the client's account history. This could be an example of a:
A.Covered transaction
B.Suspicious transaction
C.Safe harbor transaction
D.Politically Exposed Person (PEP) transaction
4. Who has the authority to issue a freeze order on any monetary instrument or property believed to be related to unlawful activities?
A.The Court of Appeals
B.The Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) Secretariat
C.The Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (BSP)
D.The trial court where the predicate crime is being tried
5. Which of the following is a primary function of the Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)?
A.To prosecute money laundering cases directly
B.To receive and analyze covered and suspicious transaction reports
C.To set interest rates for commercial banks
D.To appoint judges for financial crime cases
6. The "safe harbor" provision in the AMLA protects whom from civil or criminal liability?
A.The person committing the unlawful activity
B.The beneficiary of the laundered funds
C.Covered persons who report covered or suspicious transactions
D.The government officials investigating the case
7. What is the predicate crime of money laundering?
A.Any unlawful activity as defined by the AMLA
B.Only drug trafficking and kidnapping for ransom
C.Only graft and corruption
D.Any felony under the Revised Penal Code
8. A person knowingly transacts or attempts to transact any monetary instrument or property which represents the proceeds of any unlawful activity. This act constitutes:
A.Obstruction of justice
B.A suspicious transaction
C.The crime of money laundering
D.A predicate crime
9. A bank is required to report a covered transaction to the AMLC within how many working days from its occurrence?
A.One (1) working day
B.Five (5) working days
C.Ten (10) working days
D.Fifteen (15) working days
10. The AMLC is composed of the Governor of the Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas as Chairman, and two other members from which government bodies?
A.Department of Justice (DOJ) and Department of Finance (DOF)
B.National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) and Philippine National Police (PNP)
C.Insurance Commission (IC) and the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D.The Office of the Ombudsman and the Commission on Audit (COA)
11. A public officer who persuades or induces another public officer to commit a violation of rules and regulations duly promulgated by competent authority is liable under what law?
A.RA 9160 (AMLA)
B.RA 3019 (Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act)
C.RA 7080 (Plunder)
D.RA 6713 (Code of Conduct for Public Officials)
12. A provincial governor, in his official capacity, enters into a contract that is manifestly and grossly disadvantageous to the government. This is a violation of:
A.Section 3(e) of RA 3019
B.Section 3(g) of RA 3019
C.Section 3(h) of RA 3019
D.Section 3(b) of RA 3019
13. Which of the following is NOT an element of the offense under Section 3(e) of RA 3019 (Causing undue injury)?
A.The accused must be a public officer.
B.There must be injury to any party, including the Government, or giving any private party any unwarranted benefits.
C.The act was done with manifest partiality, evident bad faith, or gross inexcusable negligence.
D.The amount of injury must exceed PHP 50 million.
14. What is the primary role of the Office of the Ombudsman in relation to RA 3019?
A.To investigate and prosecute on its own or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any public officer or employee which appears to be illegal, unjust, improper, or inefficient.
B.To serve as legal counsel for public officials accused of graft.
C.To approve all government contracts to prevent corruption.
D.To conduct lifestyle checks on private citizens.
15. A public officer having a direct or indirect financial interest in any business, contract, or transaction in which he is prohibited by the Constitution or by any law from being interested. This falls under:
A.Section 3(e) of RA 3019
B.Section 3(g) of RA 3019
C.Section 3(h) of RA 3019
D.Section 3(a) of RA 3019
16. The penalty for a public officer found guilty of violating Sections 3, 4, 5, or 6 of RA 3019 includes:
A.A fine of not less than PHP 1,000
B.Imprisonment for not more than one year
C.Perpetual disqualification from public office
D.Community service for six months
17. The provision on "unexplained wealth" under RA 1379 is often used in conjunction with anti-graft laws. When is wealth considered prima facie unexplained?
A.When it is deposited in a foreign bank.
B.When it is manifestly out of proportion to the public officer's salary and other lawful income.
C.When the officer owns more than one house.
D.When the officer's children study in private schools.
18. Can a private person be held liable for violating RA 3019?
A.Yes, if they act in conspiracy with public officers.
B.No, the law applies exclusively to public officers.
C.Yes, but only if they are the ones who bribed the public officer.
D.No, they are covered by the Revised Penal Code instead.
19. A mayor uses his influence to secure a business license for his brother's company, ahead of other more qualified applicants. This act demonstrates:
A.Manifest partiality
B.Gross inexcusable negligence
C.Evident bad faith
D.A lawful exercise of discretion
20. The prescriptive period for offenses under RA 3019 is:
A.5 years
B.10 years
C.15 years
D.20 years
21. What is the minimum aggregate amount of ill-gotten wealth that must be amassed or acquired for the crime of Plunder (RA 7080) to be committed?
A.PHP 10,000,000
B.PHP 50,000,000
C.PHP 100,000,000
D.PHP 1,000,000,000
22. Which of the following is an essential element of the crime of Plunder?
A.The offender must be a high-ranking public official.
B.The ill-gotten wealth is acquired through a combination or series of overt criminal acts.
C.The act must be committed with violence or intimidation.
D.The case must be filed directly with the Supreme Court.
23. The penalty for a public officer found guilty of Plunder is:
A.Reclusion Perpetua to Death
B.Reclusion Temporal
C.Prision Mayor
D.A fine equivalent to the amount plundered
24. What happens to the ill-gotten wealth upon conviction for Plunder?
A.It is returned to the convicted official after serving their sentence.
B.It is donated to a charity of the official's choice.
C.It shall be forfeited in favor of the State.
D.It is divided among the whistleblowers.
25. The term "ill-gotten wealth" in the context of Plunder means any asset acquired by a public officer through what means?
A.Lawful inheritance or donation
B.Winning the lottery
C.Misuse of official influence, criminal acts, or fraudulent schemes
D.Successful business ventures while in office
26. Under RA 6713, public officials and employees have an obligation to file their Statement of Assets, Liabilities, and Net Worth (SALN) at what specific times?
A.Only upon their retirement from service.
B.Every December 31st of the year.
C.Within 30 days after assumption of office, on or before April 30 of every year thereafter, and within 30 days after separation from service.
D.Only when required by the Office of the Ombudsman.
27. Which of the following acts is NOT prohibited under RA 6713?
A.Owning, controlling, or having a financial interest in any private enterprise regulated by their office.
B.Recommending any person to any position in a private enterprise which has a regular or pending official transaction with their office.
C.Engaging in the private practice of their profession, provided it is authorized by the Constitution or law and will not conflict with their official functions.
D.Disclosing or misusing confidential information obtained in the course of their official duties.
28. A Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) employee uses their position to access the tax records of a famous celebrity out of personal curiosity. This violates the norm of:
A.Professionalism
B.Justness and sincerity
C.Political neutrality
D.Commitment to public interest
29. A public official receives a plaque of appreciation from a local community organization for his support. According to RA 6713, is this permissible?
A.No, all gifts are prohibited.
B.Yes, as long as its value is less than PHP 1,000.
C.Yes, a plaque or award of nominal value is not considered a prohibited gift.
D.No, unless it is declared in his SALN.
30. What is the primary purpose of requiring public officials to file a SALN?
A.To promote transparency and detect unlawfully acquired wealth.
B.To determine the official's eligibility for promotion.
C.To calculate the correct amount of income tax.
D.To provide data for national economic planning.